Flight Planning & Monitoring: 5 Latest ATPL Exam Questions Explained 

Cover Flight Planning and Monitoring Latest Questions June Update

Flight Planning and Monitoring is one of the most calculation-heavy ATPL subjects. The challenge is rarely the maths itself; it's knowing which formula, rule, or planning principle the examiner expects you to apply. 

Recent EASA ATPL exams continue to test practical flight planning knowledge, from holding procedures and fuel policy to RNP approaches, performance calculations, and chart interpretation. In this walkthrough, we break down five recently reported questions seen across multiple EASA authorities, explaining not only the correct answer but also the exam logic behind it.

Each question is explained step by step to help you improve both your calculation accuracy and your operational decision-making. If you want to follow along properly, grab a notebook; some of these are best understood step by step.

You can also follow along with the video version of this walkthrough for a more interactive experience. Let’s get started.

Subscribe to the AirheadATPL YouTube channel and hit the notification bell for weekly ATPL revision videos. Each video helps you tackle the latest challenging questions from all 13 ATPL subjects, straight from recent EASA ATPL exams.

5 Recent ATPL Flight Planning Exam Questions | June Update

  • AIR-243065: Holding Procedures — Minimum Obstacle Clearance Within the Holding Area

  • AIR-243528: Fuel Planning — Thunderstorm Deviations and Additional Fuel Requirements

  • AIR-243763: RNP AR APCH — Identifying Special Authorisation Approaches on Charts

  • AIR-243494: True Airspeed Calculation — TAS from Flight Level, Mach Number and Temperature

  • AIR-242925: SID Interpretation — Altitude and Flight Level Restrictions on CATON 2C Departure (Alicante)

If you'd like more recent examples covering contingency fuel, alternate fuel and operational fuel planning, see Flight Planning & Monitoring: 6 Latest ATPL Questions Explained (April Update).

Question 1: Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) — Obstacle Clearance Requirements

Question AIR-243065: An aircraft is flying over terrain of up to 2000 ft elevation. The Minimum Holding Altitude (MHA) over this terrain provides, in the holding area, a minimum obstacle clearance of how many metres?

  1. 300 m

  2. 900 m

  3. 450 m

  4. 600 m

Correct answer: 300 m

Explanation

This question tests a fundamental holding procedure rule that frequently appears in ATPL exams.

Within a standard holding area over non-mountainous terrain, the Minimum Holding Altitude provides a minimum obstacle clearance of: 300 m (1,000 ft)

However, there is an important distinction. If the holding area is located in mountainous terrain, where the highest obstacle exceeds 5,000 ft elevation, the obstacle clearance increases to: 600 m (2,000 ft)

Students often memorise the clearance values but overlook another important concept: the buffer zone.

Obstacle clearance is fully guaranteed only within the protected holding area and the holding entry area. Beyond this lies a buffer zone extending up to 5 NM from the protected boundary. Within this area, obstacle clearance gradually reduces until it becomes minimal at the outer edge.

This is why staying within the protected holding area is essential both in real-world operations and in exam questions.

Exam Tip

For ATPL exams, remember these holding figures:

  • Non-mountainous terrain: 300 m / 1,000 ft

  • Mountainous terrain: 600 m / 2,000 ft

  • Below 14,000 ft: maximum holding speed 230 kt

  • Holding leg timing: below 14,000 ft: 1 minute, above 14,000 ft: 1.5 minutes.

Want to strengthen your understanding of protected holding areas, entry procedures and holding calculations? Read our detailed guide: Holding Patterns: Mastering the Aerial Roundabout

Holding Procedure

Question 2: Fuel Planning — Thunderstorm Deviations and Additional Fuel Requirements

Question AIR-243528: During the pre-flight briefing, the Commander of a Commercial Air Transport flight notices thunderstorm activity en-route that could lead to deviations of more than 50 NM. For the preflight fuel calculation, given that deviations would increase the distance to be flown, the Commander…

  1. should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Trip Fuel.

  2. should NOT add any more fuel as weather deviation is considered in the Trip Fuel.

  3. should NOT add any more fuel as weather deviation is considered in the Reserve Fuel.

  4. should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Extra Fuel.

Correct answer: should add an appropriate amount of fuel as part of the Extra Fuel.

Explanation

This question is designed to test whether you understand the purpose of each fuel category.

Many students incorrectly select contingency fuel because weather deviations are involved. However, contingency fuel is intended to cover unforeseen variations during flight, such as minor routing changes, small ATC delay, variations in fuel consumption.

Known thunderstorm activity identified before departure is not unforeseen. The commander is already aware that additional track miles may be required. In this situation, the commander should add Extra Fuel.

Extra fuel is carried at the commander's discretion whenever known circumstances justify additional fuel above the regulatory minimum.

This is a classic ATPL fuel policy trap: distinguishing between an unexpected event and a known risk identified during flight planning.

Exam Tip

Remember the classic fuel planning structure: Taxi → Trip → Contingency → Alternate → Final Reserve → Extra Fuel.

Struggling to remember the different fuel categories? The TTCFEE mnemonic is covered in our article 12 Aviation Mnemonics for ATPL Students.

TTCAAFE – Basic Fuel Scheme

Question 3: RNP AR APCH — Identifying Special Authorisation Approaches on Charts

Question AIR-243763: Some procedures are designated as RNP AR APCH. Which of the following is an example of how to identify, on an instrument approach chart, a procedure necessitating this designation?

  1. Any procedure with LPV minima.

  2. A procedure using a GNSS Landing System (GLS) with CAT I minima.

  3. Any procedure with LNAV/VNAV minima.

  4. A procedure with a curved final approach segment.

Correct answer: A procedure with a curved final approach segment.

Explanation

Students often confuse standard RNP approaches with RNP AR procedures, but there is a key difference. A standard RNP approach typically leads to the runway via a straight final approach segment.

An RNP AR (Authorisation Required) procedure includes a curved flight path, requiring the aircraft to maintain extremely accurate lateral guidance right up to the final approach.

Because of this increased complexity, two approvals are required:

  1. The aircraft navigation system must be certified for RNP AR operations.

  2. The operator must receive specific regulatory authorisation.

A good real-world example is the famous RNP AR approach to Runway 22 at Nice, France. The procedure includes a curved final segment that follows the coastline before turning onto a very short final approach. The navigation system must continuously calculate and fly the curved path with high accuracy, which is why additional certification and approval are required.

Students often struggle with this topic because LPV, LNAV/VNAV and RNP AR all appear under the wider umbrella of PBN procedures. The easiest way to separate them is to remember:

If the final approach is curved and the chart says AR, think RNP AR.

Exam Tip

Key differences:

  • LPV = GNSS approach with localiser-like lateral guidance and vertical guidance.

  • LNAV/VNAV = APV approach with vertical guidance.

  • RNP AR = Curved approach requiring special aircraft and operator approval.

Look for the letters "AR" on the chart.

ICAO Approach Classification new

For more recent examples involving IFR procedures and operational decision-making, see Air Law: 7 Latest ATPL Exam Questions Explained and Operational Procedures: 5 Latest ATPL Questions Explained

Question 4: True Airspeed Calculation — TAS from Flight Level, Mach Number and Temperature

Question AIR-243494: Given: FL 370; M=0.74: OAT=-47°C The TAS is:

  1. 434 kt

  2. 424 kt

  3. 415 kt

  4. 428 kt

Correct answer: 434 kt TAS

Explanation

This question often causes problems because students focus on the flight level. But it is actually irrelevant to the calculation. The key principle is that Mach number is simply the ratio between True Airspeed (TAS) and the local speed of sound. To calculate TAS, we first need to determine the local speed of sound, which depends only on temperature.

This is the examiner's trap: the flight level is provided as a distraction.

Start by converting the Outside Air Temperature from Celsius to Kelvin:

-47°C + 273 = 226 K

Next, calculate the local speed of sound using the formula: LSS = 39 x √T (where T = OAT in Kelvin).  

39 × √226 ≈ 587 kt

Now multiply the local speed of sound by the Mach number:

0.74 × 587 = 434 kt

Therefore, the aircraft's True Airspeed is 434 kt.

Quick Note: You can also solve this question using a CRP-5 flight computer.

Set the Mach Number Index against the Outside Air Temperature (-47°C), then read the True Airspeed (TAS) on the outer scale opposite Mach 0.74 on the inner scale.

Result: Mach 0.74 ≈ 432 kt TAS

Many students become frustrated when small reading errors produce slightly different answers. Understanding the relationship between Mach number, temperature, and the speed of sound is usually faster and more reliable in the exam.

Quick Calculation

  1. Convert temperature to Kelvin: -47°C + 273 = 226 K

  2. Calculate local speed of sound: 39 × √226 = 587 kt

  3. Calculate TAS: 587 × 0.74 = 434 kt

Exam Tip

  • Mach number depends on True Airspeed and the local speed of sound.

  • The local speed of sound depends only on temperature.

  • If a question provides Mach number and OAT, the flight level is often there to distract you.

  • Learn the logic behind the formula rather than relying entirely on a flight computer. It is usually quicker and reduces the risk of rounding errors.

Question 5: SID Interpretation — Altitude and Flight Level Restrictions on CATON 2C Departure

Question AIR-242925: Refer to ALICANTE - Chart 10-3A from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017.

Which of the following statements contains all corresponding altitude and flight level instructions when departing via CATON 2C?

Annex AIR-242925
  1. At D9.5 ALT not below 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA at or above FL80, overhead NARGO at or above FL110, at CATON below FL230

  2. At D9.5 ALT not below 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA not above FL110, overhead NARGO at or above FL110, at CATON below FL230

  3. At D9.5 ALT above 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA below FL110, overhead NARGO above FL110, at CATON above FL230

  4. At D9.5 ALT at or above 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA at or above FL80, overhead NARGO at or above FL110, at CATON at or below FL230

Correct answer: At D9.5 ALT at or above 3 100 ft, overhead VILNA at or above FL80, overhead NARGO at or above FL110, at CATON at or below FL230

Explanation

This question is less about navigation and more about chart interpretation.

On the CATON 2C departure:

  • 9.5 DME: 3,100 ft or above

  • VILNA: FL80 or above

  • NARGO: FL110 or above

  • CATON: FL230 or below

Annex AIR-242925 Explanation

The examiner's trap is the wording. Jeppesen charts use very specific phraseology:

  • At or Above

  • At or Below

In many cases, you can identify the correct answer simply by recognising the standard chart terminology before even analysing the entire procedure. If an altitude appears without a restriction symbol above or below it, it is usually a recommended altitude rather than a mandatory constraint.

Exam Tip

Standard phraseology often reveals the correct answer before you even begin interpreting the chart.

When reading Jeppesen charts:

  • At or Above = minimum crossing altitude

  • At or Below = maximum crossing altitude

  • No restriction symbol = recommended altitude

ATPL Flight Planning Exam Overview 

The Flight Planning & Monitoring exam is one of the more demanding ATPL subjects, testing your ability to apply route planning, flight calculations, and fuel policy under time pressure.

Lifelong Learning as Pilot

Explore key subtopics & core concepts of the Flight Planning and Monitoring Syllabus

  • Number of Questions: 42

  • Exam Duration: 2 hours

  • Difficulty: Hard

  • 65% of papers passed

You’ll face 42 questions in 2 hours, so strong time management and quick recognition of question types are essential. 

Although often rated as difficult, the exam is very manageable with the right approach; around 65% of candidates pass. Success in this subject comes down to practice and pattern recognition. Many questions follow familiar formats, so focus on:

  • Repeated question bank practice

  • Mastering core calculation methods

  • Understanding the logic behind procedures (not just memorising)

Prepare smarter for the EASA ATPL Flight Planning & Monitoring (033) exam with Airhead ATPL Question Bank.  Study with the most up-to-date ATPL exam questions across all EASA subjects. Airhead combines real exam reporting, clear explanations, and modern study tools to help you prepare efficiently and with confidence.

Next step: Open your Airhead ATPL question bank and practise Flight Planning & Monitoring questions

11 Jun 2026

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